Hey fellas, I wasnt sure if this belonged in BDD or ADD so mods feel free to move this wherever. I believe I originally saw a post for this in ADD but I cannot find it now so work with me fellas, or link me if you find it
Anyways guys you all wanna know the question now, right? i recently saw a post on this and was reading an interesting paper on the topic, and the question is:
Can low doses of buprenorphine potentiate full opiate agonists?
Basically, the jist of it was this:
since buprenorphine acts as much as an agonist as it can in lower doses, typically observed to be the "ceiling" of agonist effects is around 2mg, (possibly 4?), it is exhibiting very low antagonistic action, if any, at these doses. So then if one were then to take a very small dose (I believe the article was doing 100-500 micrograms, or .1-.5 mg of buprenorphine) before taking one's agonist, the buprenorphine will be exhibiting almost agonistic activity.
since the bupe will be acting as an agonist (a strong one at that) as much as possible (at these doses), it will be activating those receptors akin to any other agonist; since the dosage of buprenorphine is so low that it will not fully saturate one's opiate receptors, it thereby leaves many open; since these receptors are all open and the buprenorphine is not acting as an antagonist (or if it is, in VERY VERY minute amounts) but rather an agonist, would it then be possible to ingest another opiate (an agonist) and fill up these empty receptors?
Since the buprenorphine is in ones system before hand, it has already taken up as many receptors as it can and NOT stripped them of any agonists: since the buprenorphine is totally absorbed but not occupying all receptors, is it then possible to fill up the rest of them, and well get one "high"? And, to boot, "higher" (relatively speaking) than one would have been w/o the buprenorphine, because there are more receptor sites being occupied (by agonists).
no precipitated withdrawals because the sub is not knocking things off the sites, rather already there.
naloxone is ineffective orally and sublingually; if this is a concern however one could wait for most of the naloxone to be eliminatd since it is done so fairly quickly, and VERY quickly relative to buprenorphine (which stays in ya system for ages). one could wait a few hours for the naloxone to go, and the buprenorphine will still be there, despite it being a small amount, it will definitely be there for quite awhile
Interesting thinking...if anyone can find me any information on this further (the thread on bluelight would be good, as well as the paper which I had been reading), it'd be great. Sorry I didnt talk in very precise chemical terms, I was just trying to convey the concepts so that many could understand and contribute their thoughts. Any thoughts and input are still input
Hope this gets a good discussion going; or I can be pointed in the right direction of an already good discussion