I am very experienced with Xanax and unfortunately too experienced with beer. But my question is this, I have a psychology professor who had a large lecture on drugs, he was unbiased about the lecture, but he claims that Xanax has a doubling affect on alcohol. So he's saying you drink a beer then take a Xanax that beer becomes equal to the effects your body will feel with two beers. Two beers become four. He claims all alcohol has this affect with Xanax. Two shots = four. I was curious if Anybody has seen a study proving this? I don't think he was trying to "scare" us, but I'm curious where this figure came from. And if it's true what amount of Xanax is needed for this too be accurate. Why would this only occur with Xanax and not other benzos?