Yesterday I ran out of cyclizine and decided to switch to chlorpheniramine as my antihistamine of choice.
I suffer from bad hayfever. I have tried several 2nd gen antihistamines and find them to be inconsistent. Loratadine doesn't do anything to me anymore and cetirizine loses its effectiveness very quickly.
1st gen antihistamines work very well for my hayfever and kick in quickly. I also like them because they alleviate the physical side effects of opioids and psychedelic drugs. So far I have tried promethazine, DPH and cyclizine. The only problem I have with these drugs is that they are highly sedating. I also get minor dry mouth and photosensitivity, so I blame the anticholinergic effect.
I went with chlorpheniramine because of its potency (4mg tablets as opposed to 25-50mg for the others). I figure if it's that potent then it can't be very anticholinergic, which would make it less sedating (the Wikipedia article mentions that it's less sedating than other 1st gens).
I couldn't find any literature out there comparing the anticholinergic properties of 1st gen antihistamines but this seems logical to me. In the case of antipsychotics (which share similarities with 1st gen antihistamines); more potent = less anticholinergic and less sedating.
Does anybody on here have experience with this stuff? How effective is it as an antihistamine? How sedating is it relative to PMZ, DPH etc.?
Cheers.
I suffer from bad hayfever. I have tried several 2nd gen antihistamines and find them to be inconsistent. Loratadine doesn't do anything to me anymore and cetirizine loses its effectiveness very quickly.
1st gen antihistamines work very well for my hayfever and kick in quickly. I also like them because they alleviate the physical side effects of opioids and psychedelic drugs. So far I have tried promethazine, DPH and cyclizine. The only problem I have with these drugs is that they are highly sedating. I also get minor dry mouth and photosensitivity, so I blame the anticholinergic effect.
I went with chlorpheniramine because of its potency (4mg tablets as opposed to 25-50mg for the others). I figure if it's that potent then it can't be very anticholinergic, which would make it less sedating (the Wikipedia article mentions that it's less sedating than other 1st gens).
I couldn't find any literature out there comparing the anticholinergic properties of 1st gen antihistamines but this seems logical to me. In the case of antipsychotics (which share similarities with 1st gen antihistamines); more potent = less anticholinergic and less sedating.
Does anybody on here have experience with this stuff? How effective is it as an antihistamine? How sedating is it relative to PMZ, DPH etc.?
Cheers.
